Pearson correlation without z-normalization #932
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@tomweb153 Thank you for your question and welcome to the STUMPY community. It isn't so clear to me what you mean when you say "Pearson correlation without z-normalization". At the end of the day, Pearson correlation has a very clear definition (and does not necessarily depend on z-norm). In general, if your time series contains many constant subsequences then, by definition, the Pearson correlation will be 1.0 by simply following its definition above. Now, if you know that you are disinterested in those constant subsequences then you can change those constant sections to Hopefully that helps. Otherwise, please feel free to provide a small working code example to demonstrate your point. |
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Hello everyone,
I would like to ask, if it's possible to compute the pearson correlation without z-normalization using stumpy?
I have read something about the pearson correlation here: #484
However, due to many flat sequences z-normalization becomes counterproductive for me.
Thanks!
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